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is shia believe in muta ? Can someone give me a detail answer when shia people do this and why?

asked 0441130 UnknownUser's gravatar image

Insha Allah I won't cause a debate here. That is not my intention. My knowledge is small., I am learning and insha Allah will be able to learn the right way. Now I read what devoted posted though it was rather long I made it through alhamdulillah. Now here is what I understand on mut'ah temporary marriage. Praise be to Allaah.

Mut’ah marriage means that a man marries a woman – either Muslim or from the people of the Book – and specifies how long the marriage will last, for example five days, or two months, or half a year, or many years. The beginning and end of the marriage are specified, and he pays her a small mahr (dowry), and after the specified time is over, the woman exits the marriage. This kind of marriage was permitted during the year of the Conquest of Makkah for three days, then it was disallowed and prohibited until the Day of Resurrection. This was reported by Muslim (1406).

The wife is the one with whom one stays on a long-term basis, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“… and live with them honourably …” [al-Nisaa’ 4:19], but in the case of mut’ah a man does not live with the woman for long.

The wife is the one who is called a wife in sharee’ah, with whom the relationship is long-lasting. She is mentioned in the aayah (interpretation of the meaning):

“Except from their wives or (the slaves) that their right hands possess, ¾ for then, they are free from blame” [al-Mu’minoon 23:6] – the latter (a slave whom one’s right hand possesses) is not a wife according to sharee’ah, because her stay is limited to a short time.

The wife is the one who inherits from the husband, or from whom the husband inherits, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“In that which your wives leave, your share is a half if they have no child…” [al-Nisaa’ 4:12]. But the woman in a mut’ah marriage does not inherit, because she is not a wife, since she spends such a short time with the man.

On these grounds, Mut’ah marriage is considered to be zinaa (adultery or fornication), even if both parties consent to it, and even if it lasts for a long time, and even if the man pays the woman a mahr. There is nothing that has been reported in sharee’ah that shows that it may be permitted, apart from the brief period when it was allowed during the year of the conquest of Makkah. That was because at that time there were so many people who has newly embraced Islam and there was the fear that they might become apostates, because they had been used to committing zinaa during the Jaahiliyyah. So this kind of marriage was permitted for them for three days, then it was made haraam until the Day of Resurrection, as was narrated by Muslim, 1406.

From al-Lu’lu’ al-Makeen min Fataawa Fadeelat al-Shaykh ‘Abd al-Rahmaan ibn Jibreen, p. Why one says halal. And one says haram? And why would we have marriage at all if we can have mut'ah?' and what about children ? Families? How does that work out in mutah?....

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answered 1.6k314 sadie's gravatar image

Sadie the hadeeths you used has one common factor and that being that if what they say is truth then all of the sahabah were being fasiq after the demise of the Rasul saws, for it is a known fact that they continued to practice this up until umar stopped it. I have noticed that you haven't touched that part of the discussion, the brother Devoted gave a very detailed explanation from the scholars,and he anwered the questions you posed at the end. Mutah is a mercy from Allah, it is not a Shia thing it an Islamic thing, I'am not shia but I agree with the strongest proof.Salaam

(Jun 18 '13 at 11:45) yaqin ♦ yaqin's gravatar image

I guess I just don't understand very well and its caused me to be frustrated.:(

(Jun 19 '13 at 02:13) sadie ♦ sadie's gravatar image

no sister donot get frustrated what you are doing is saying what you have learned. its ok keep studying.

(Jun 19 '13 at 03:21) yaqin ♦ yaqin's gravatar image

This one here

(Jul 03 '13 at 10:21) yaqin ♦ yaqin's gravatar image

Is it pious to stop something that the Rasul saws implented.

(Oct 29 '13 at 00:29) yaqin ♦ yaqin's gravatar image

No. It would be a bidah to stop the practice cause misguidance and every misguidance will reside in the Nar. Fire.

(Oct 29 '13 at 00:37) sadie ♦ sadie's gravatar image
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Asked: Jun 14 '13 at 00:56

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Last updated: 13 hours ago

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