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There are two persons A and B. A is need of money.he has none except a piece of land. He offers in mortage his land to the person B for a sum of Rs 50000 .The land will be in possession of B as long the A keeps the money.The B will use the land for his own benefit during this period. How is it in the light of sharia

asked 1817 arsalan86's gravatar image

amount is loan and not rent

answered 1817 arsalan86's gravatar image

Provided no interest is paid on the loan; and that the sum paid back is the same as that given (Rs 50000) it is allowed. What is haram is money paid in interest on the loan. This is usury.

(Jul 10 '13 at 11:30) UnknownUser UnknownUser's gravatar image

This land is not being mortgaged. It is being leased (or rented). If no usury is involved then this is permissible.

Here is a relevant Hadith:

‘It was narrated that ‘Abdullah bin As-Sa’ib said: “We entered upon Abdullah bin Ma’qil and asked him about Muzara’ah. He said: “Thabit said that the Messenger of Allah (salla Allahu alayhi wa sallam) forbade muzara’ah and enjoined mu’ajarah (renting out land), and said: “There is nothing wrong with it.”’ Hadith 3956 - Muslim.

I hope this helps.

answered 0543145 UnknownUser's gravatar image

I think it is allowed in Islam but I am not sure. I will tell you after confirming with my Mufti Sir...

answered 1.1k11042 Irfan%20Alam's gravatar image
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Asked: Jul 09 '13 at 03:35

Seen: 790 times

Last updated: Jul 10 '13 at 11:31

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