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I am eligible to pay zakat and this will be the first time when i have to. I don't have enough money to pay full zakat at once. I have some questions related to that. please advise.

  1. I have some air miles, if i will donate then to one of the foundation who supports orphans, will that count in zakat because i can also use them to buy things.

  2. I can pay some of the amount from the total zakat calculation but can't pay in full. can i pay some in this month and some in preceding month? means in two installments? or do i have to sell the gold to pay the zakat in full or should i take loan to pay zakat.

  3. My wife is pregnant and she can't do FAST. If she is planning to make it after delivery so still do i have to pay Fidya for that?

I am very much worried and concerned about ZAKAT, please advise. Actually I am in a debt burden and has to pay off some debts during next two months so thats why i am in financial trouble otherwise I can pay everything in full.

asked 10 adil88's gravatar image

Al Salam Alaikom borther Adil, May Allah bless you and your family. Your question is very personal (depends on several individual factors) and its not correct to ask for a fatwa (Islamic ruling) on the subject matter except from knowledgeable scholars able to provide such fatwa for personal cases, so I urge you to seek someone trusted and knowledgeable who is in your community, or ask at an online fatwa site dedicated with scholarly replies. You should be concerned strongly about Zakat because it one of the 5 pillars of Islam. I only wish to tell you that in your situation you HAVE the monetary alternative in your POSSESSION that is gold, so I guess you should be serious enough to pay Allah rights to those rightful. By the way air mile rewards have nothing to do with your monetary possessions, these are rewards, not owned assets on which you possess to pay 2.5% after a year. I would copy below a fatwa from a trusted source for you it would give you directions:

169899: Delaying payment of zakaah in order to pay it in the month of Ramadan

First of all, I would like to thank you – after Allah – for the efforts you are making, and I ask Allah to place it in the balance of your good deeds and to benefit thereby everyone who reads it, Muslim or otherwise. My question may be summed up as follows: I found a job three years ago and I get a good salary from it, praise be to Allah. But after I worked out the time when my wealth reached the nisaab (minimum threshold at which zakaah becomes obligatory) it became clear that it was due in the month of Jumaada al-Aakhir, but without meaning to, I paid it in the month of Ramadan, thinking that I could choose the time to pay it. This continued for two years, but now I would like to ask about this year: can I pay zakaah in the month of Ramadan as I did in the two previous years, or should I pay it in the month of Jumaada al-Aakhir? Are there any consequences as a result of having delayed it in the two previous years; in other words, should I work out the value of zakaah for each month and pay zakaah for the months during which I delayed it? Please note that in the month of Ramadan I paid zakaah on all the wealth that I had my possession including that which I had obtained after the month of Jumaada al-Aakhir. Praise be to Allah.


It is obligatory to pay zakaah immediately, once one’s wealth reaches the nisaab (minimum threshold) and one full (Hijri) year has passed since then, because delaying it with no excuse is a sin; but if it is delayed for a legitimate reason, such as not being able to find any poor people to give it to, there is nothing wrong with that.

An-Nawawi (may Allah have mercy on him) said: It is obligatory to pay zakaah immediately once it becomes due and it is possible to pay it, and it is not permissible to delay it. This was stated by Maalik, Ahmad, and the majority of scholars, because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “and give Zakat” [al-Baqarah 2:43]; this command implies that is to be paid immediately.

End quote from Sharh al-Muhadhdhab (5/308)

It says in Fataawa al-Lajnah ad-Daa’imah (9/398):

If the time for paying zakaah is the month of Jumada al-Oola, can we delay it until the month of Ramadan with no reason or excuse?

Answer: it is not permissible to delay payment of zakaah after one full year has passed, unless there is a legitimate shar‘i excuse, such as not being able to find any poor people at the time the year is completed, or not being able to get it to them, or because the wealth is not to hand, and so on. As for delaying it because of Ramadan, that is not permissible unless the time period is short, such as if the year is completed in the latter half of Sha‘baan. In that case there is nothing wrong with delaying it until Ramadan. End quote.

Standing Committee for Academic Research and Issuing Fatwas

‘Abd al-‘Azeez ibn ‘Abdullah ibn Baaz, ‘Abdullah ibn Qa‘ood, ‘Abdullah ibn Ghadyaan

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked about the ruling on delaying zakaah until Ramadan.

He replied: Zakaah, like other good deeds, if done at a time that is regarded as having special virtue, that is better, but when zakaah becomes due and the year has passed, it becomes obligatory to pay it, and it should not be delayed until Ramadan. If the zakaah year ends in Rajab, he should not delay it until Ramadan; rather he should pay it in Rajab. If the zakaah year ends in Muharram, he should pay it in Muharram and not delay it until Ramadan. But if the zakaah year ends in Ramadan, then he should pay it in Ramadan. The same applies if some emergency arises among the Muslims and he wants to bring forward his zakaah and give it before the year has passed; there is nothing wrong with that.

End quote from Majmoo‘ al-Fataawa (18/295)


The questioner delayed giving the zakaah of his wealth until Ramadan based on a mistaken notion, so there is no sin on him because he was unaware of the correct ruling. Then if he paid it after that in Ramadan, then he has done what is required of him, and he does not have to do anything because of this delay. But this year he must pay it in Jumaada al-Aakhirah and not delay it until Ramadan.

And Allah knows best.

answered 55018 123%20AbduAllah's gravatar image

Al Salam Alaikom regarding the second point, of the women fasting during pregnancy here is another fatwa (ruling) with its proof:

21589: Ruling on the fast of a pregnant woman who is affected by fasting

Is it mandatory for a pregnant woman to observe fasting in Ramadhan and Ashoo'ra. I advised my wife not to fast during last Ramadhaan and she was not fasting because she was pregnant.She was weak and anaemic last time when she was pregnant. She had miscarried by end of Ramadhan when she was 12 weeks pregnant. What is the ruling about her missed fasting during ramadhan. Does she have to complete them before next ramadhaan. Can she fast normally when she finds that she is pregnant?. She always insist on fasting during pregnancy. Any medical evidences will also help that the baby won't be harmed by fasting during pregnancy. Praise be to Allaah.

This question covers three topics:

1- The ruling on a pregnant woman breaking her fast in Ramadaan

2- How a miscarriage in Ramadaan affects a woman’s fast

3- The ruling on making up fasts after Ramadaan

With regard to the pregnant woman: it is permissible for her not to fast if she fears some harm which she thinks will most likely affect her and/or her baby. Breaking the fast becomes obligatory if she fears that she may die or be severely harmed if she fasts. In that case she has to make up the fast later on but she does not have to pay the fidyah. This is according to the consensus of the fuqaha’, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meanings): “And do not kill yourselves”

[al-Nisa’ 4:29]

“and do not throw yourselves into destruction”

[al-Baqarah 2:195]

The scholars are similarly agreed that it is not obligatory to pay the fidyah in this case, because a woman in this case is like one who is sick and one who fears for his life.

If the woman fears for her baby only (and not for herself), then some of the scholars are of the view that it is permissible for her to break her fast, but they say that she must make up the fast later on and pay the fidyah (which means feeding one poor person for each day not fasted), because of the report narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas concerning the verse (interpretation of the meaning):

“And as for those who can fast with difficulty, (e.g. an old man), they have (a choice either to fast or) to feed a Miskeen (poor person) (for every day)”

[al-Baqarah 2:184]

Ibn ‘Abbaas said: This is a concession allowed to old men and women, who can only fast with difficulty; they are allowed to break the fast and to feed one poor person for each day of fasting missed. This also applies to pregnant and nursing women, if they are afraid.” Abu Dawood said: “i.e., if they are afraid for their children, they may break the fast.” (Narrated by Abu Dawood, 1947; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in al-Irwa’, 4/18, 25).

(See al-Mawsoo’ah al-Fiqhiyyah, 16/272)

Hence it is clear that if fasting will cause great harm to a woman or to her baby, she is obliged to break the fast, on condition that the doctor who states that fasting will cause harm is a doctor who can be trusted.

This has to do with breaking the fast during Ramadaan. With regard to ‘Aashoora, fasting on this day is not obligatory, according to scholarly consensus; rather it is mustahabb, and it is not permissible for a woman to observe a naafil fast when her husband is present, except with his permission. If he tells her not to fast then she has to obey him, especially if that is in the interests of the foetus.

With regard to miscarriage: “If the matter is as mentioned, that the miscarriage occurred in the third month of pregnancy, then the blood that comes out is not considered to be the blood of nifaas (bleeding following childbirth), rather it is the blood of istihaadah (non-menstrual vaginal bleeding), because what the woman passed was a clot (‘alaqah) in which there were no human features. On this basis, she should pray and fast even if she sees some blood, but she should do wudoo’ for each prayer, and she has to make up the days when she did not fast and the prayers that she missed.”

(See Fataawa al-Lajnah al-Daa’imah, 10.218)

With regard to the fasts that she has missed: “Everyone who owes fasts from Ramadaan has to make them up before the next Ramadaan. He may delay that until Sha’baan. But if the next Ramadaan comes and he has not made them up and had no excuse for that, then he is guilty of sin and he has to make them up as well as feeding one poor person for each day, as was stated by a number of the Companions of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). The amount to be given is half a saa’ of the local staple food for each day, which may be given to a number of poor persons or to one. But if a person had an excuse for delaying making up the fasts, because he was sick or was travelling, then all he has to do is to make up the missed fasts, and he does not have to feed the poor, because of the general meaning of the verse (interpretation of the meaning):

‘but if any of you is ill or on a journey, the same number (should be made up) from other days’

[al-Baqarah 2:184].

And Allaah is the Source of strength.”

(Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz, 15/340)

May Allah bless you and your family.

answered 55018 123%20AbduAllah's gravatar image
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Asked: Jun 30 at 03:38

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