I am a new muslim and I am reading the Quran to understand more about Islam. There are a few particular verse I don't understand which is 23:5-7.

My question is that God allowed a man to have sexual intercourse with his wives which is no doubt, fair. But what does 'right hand possession' exactly means? Why does God allow man to have sexual intercourse with their 'right hand possession' when they are not official married?

I have tried to search on the internet for answer, but I can't really find one.

Can you please clarify my question.

Thank you very much.

Allahu Akbar!

asked 23 jiannj's gravatar image
edited Apr 27 '12 at 14:10 NesreenA ♦ 199722 NesreenA's gravatar image

asalaam aleykum

i recommend you read this surat as follows

combine from verse 1 to 11(to that u will get full picture what Kuran says) i recommend to log on


i will pase below from(verse) 1 to 11 and to you see their meaning over the site i gave.

(23:1-11) Most certainly those Believers have attained true success 1 who 2 perform their Salat with humility: 3 who refrain from vain things: 4 who spend their Zakat dues in appropriate ways: 5 who guard their private parts scrupulously, 6 except with regard to their wives and those women who are legally in their possession, for in that case they shall not be blame-worthy, but those, who go beyond this (in lust for sexual desires), shall be transgressors: 7 who are true to their trusts and their promises: 8 and who strictly guard their Prayers. 9 These are the heirs who will inherit Paradise 10 and dwell therein for ever. *11

answered 73237 abjad's gravatar image

the reason why you cant find it is because its haram to have sexual intercourse before marrige their is no where that says Allah allows it only when they are married and it no one ever says your possessions you say your wives people dont own their wives that is why divorce is permissable its the opposite a man should not treat his wife like he ownes her only allah ownes us and can do what he pleases but a husband cannot, a husband isnt even on the top list people have to listen to it goes allah then the prophets then your mother(3 times) then your father then maybe your husband but the prophet never said that himself he only listed up to the father the reason why they have have intercourse with their wives is because they are in agreement that she does her duties and cares for children etc. and the man provides for the family before he even provides for himself but as you can see people who do zina are not in agreement they dont care for eachother they leave if the women gets pregnant the man does not provide for them and Allah simply protects us from this when we were instructed to only have intercourse with our wives because otherwise there is no agreement between eachother and their lord and they both can easily hurt eachother leave eachother and dont care for eachother unlike a husband would its not a matter of slavery or ownership its a matter of agreement among eachother both fulfill eachothers needs unlike in slavery only the owner of the slave gets what he wants and the slave is stuck and recives nothing but pain

answered 199722 NesreenA's gravatar image
edited Apr 27 '12 at 13:45

i read the verse you were referring to the wive and the right hand posseses is not the same persone it says your wives OR what your right hand possess.....not sure what it means but ill look into it

(Apr 27 '12 at 13:53) NesreenA ♦ NesreenA's gravatar image

i relized what your right hand posses is a slave girl but not the wife however if you want to know why the slave girl can see his private parts this will answer you: http://www.islam.tc/cgi-bin/askimam/ask.pl?q=14421&act=view

(Apr 27 '12 at 14:06) NesreenA ♦ NesreenA's gravatar image
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Asked: Apr 27 '12 at 13:14

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Last updated: Apr 27 '12 at 18:49

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